Statistics Pulse

Five questions across 6 topics. No timer.

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Question 1 of 5

foundation (2/10)conceptual

For an i.i.d. sample X_{1}, \dots, X_{n} from any distribution with finite variance σ^{2}, the MLE of σ^{2} under Gaussian model is \overset{σ}{^}_{MLE}^{2} = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i} (X_{i} - \overset{ˉ}{X})^{2}, but the unbiased sample variance uses \frac{1}{n - 1} . Why?